Christians today definitely DO NOT abide by the laws in the old...

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    Christians today definitely DO NOT abide by the laws in the old testament. That is just ludicrous.

    Agree. That is not my point. My point focused on what I read in Matthew 5:17-18 about the OT. Even so Christians had embraced the OT before they began to walk away from many of its tenants - in my opinion they only started doing this when they were dragged kicking and screaming to enlightenment during the age of enlightenment.

    Some light reading to debunk your statement:

    OK, lets look at your "light reading".

    Matthew 5:17-18 New International Version (NIV)
    The Fulfillment of the Law
    17 “Do not think that I have come to abolish the Law or the Prophets; I have not come to abolish them but to fulfill them. 18 For truly I tell you, until heaven and earth disappear, not the smallest letter, not the least stroke of a pen, will by any means disappear from the Law until everything is accomplished.

    Let's replace abolish them with
    • loosen (them) down
    • overthrow (them)
    • render (them) vain, (or to) deprive (them) of success
    • invalidate (them)
    • (in) opposition to “fulfill" (them)
    • prevent (their) fulfillment

    In my view these alternatives don't substantially change the meaning attributed when using the words "abolish them". For me, there is no indication that Christians are directed to give up abiding by the laws of OT - the contrary, I suggest.

    and
    His goal was not to prevent its fulfillment. Rather, He revered it, loved it, obeyed it, and brought it to fruition. He fulfilled the law’s prophetic utterances regarding Himself (Luke 24:44). Christ fulfilled the demands of the Mosaic law, which called for perfect obedience under threat of a “curse” (seeGalatians 3:10, 13). In this sense, the law’s divine design will ever have an abiding effect. It will always accomplish the purpose for which it was given.

    For me this indicates a desire to stick with the OT laws as they are regarded as always applicable.

    If, however, the law of Moses bears the same relationship to men today, in terms of its binding status, then it was not fulfilled, and Jesus failed at what He came to do. On the other hand, if the Lord did accomplish His goal, then the law was fulfilled, and it is not a binding legal institution today.

    If this interpretation of "fulfilled" is correct then the ten commandments are not to be regarded as legally binding either - which I think presents a problem. And the OT law would not be seen as that which always accomplish the purpose for which it was given.
 
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